Whether the original Hebrew of Genesis implies the loincloths of Adam and Eve were animal hides—or the physical bodies newly clothing their spiritual bodies.
Might Genesis 6:4 have originated as propaganda for the policies of Ezra and Nehemiah?
Might the Greek phrase 'οἱ γίγαντες οἱ ἀπ᾽ αἰῶνος' mean the Genesis 6:1-4 Nephilim were avatars of the Gnostic Aeons?
Is the supposed influence of Hinduism & Buddhism on Gnosticism and Christianity rendered unlikely by the absence of any Sanskrit texts in Egypt or Palestine?
My question relates to the overall idea the New Testament gospels are Midrash. Why would a group of individuals sit down one day, grab a random name out of a hat, then start writing Midrash in Greek?
Why would Paul (in Galatians) refer only to James as the Lord's brother
while not so describing Cephas? It seems obvious to me that "brother"
here can have only its literal, primary meaning.
I'm interested in your take on how the Prosperity Gospel has developed over the decades and its relation to those American Christians who have accumulated economic and political power.
Does Romans 13 mean, as many hold, that God rubber stamps the actions of any and all government? Or that he has charged them with righteous administration, implying he will replace them if they fail?
Is the Catholic refusal to inform the police of crimes learned of in the confession booth
based on the Bible?
What do you think of Jordan Pederson’s approach to the Bible?
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